What’s Your DSM-5-TR IQ (Part 2)?

#1. Which of the following is NOT diagnostic criteria for panic disorder?

Having a least one panic attack in the last 2 weeks

Sweating

Chest pain or discomfort

Abdominal distress

#2. True or false: Panic disorder occurs more frequently in women.

True

False

The rate of panic disorder is nearly twofold higher in women compared with men.

#3. To be diagnosed with agoraphobia, a person must have a marked fear or anxiety of which of the following:

Spiders

Using public transportation

Loud chewing

Heights

Additional diagnostic criteria include being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces (e.g., shops, theaters), standing in line or being in a crowd, and being outside of the home alone.

#4. Differential diagnoses for GAD include which of the following:

Social anxiety disorder

Prolonged grief disorder

Schizotypal personality disorder

Antisocial personality disorder

Other differential diagnoses include separation anxiety disorder, substance-induced anxiety disorder, panic disorder, illness anxiety disorder, OCD, PTSD, adjustment disorder, and depressive disorders.

#5. The main difference between other specified anxiety disorder and unspecified anxiety disorder is:

Unspecified anxiety disorder does not cause impairment or distress.

Duration of symptoms

Other Specified is used when the clinician does specify the reason the presentation doesn’t meet full criteria, while Unspecified is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason

Whether the symptoms are triggered by a specific event

#6. OCD includes all of the following disorders EXCEPT:

body dysmorphic disorder

PTSD

hoarding disorder

skin-picking

#7. Associated features with body dysmorphic disorder include:

believing that others are mocking them because of how they look

passive behavior

self-confidence

frequently complaining about their bodies to friends and family members

#8. In those with hoarding disorder, symptoms typically begin

later in life.

after a significant loss.

early in life as well as into the later stages.

with collecting-type hobbies.

#9. Which of the following is a DSM-5-TR diagnostic feature of Hair-Pulling Disorder?

Recurrent pulling of one’s hair due to sensory hallucinations

Recurrent pulling of one’s hair resulting in hair loss, accompanied by repeated attempts to decrease or stop the behavior

Hair pulling that occurs exclusively during manic episodes

Hair pulling that is always motivated by cosmetic dissatisfaction

#10. Approximately what percentage of adults in the United States identify as having a skin-picking disorder (current, not lifetime)?

10%

2.1%

0.8%

6.7%

#11. Which of the following best describes a core feature of Reactive Attachment Disorder?

Excessive social engagement with unfamiliar adults and a lack of reticence in approaching strangers

Recurrent emotional outbursts in response to perceived threats of abandonment

A consistent pattern of emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers

Development of aggressive behavior after exposure to trauma in early childhood

#12. Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

Exposure to a stressful life event such as job loss or divorce

Presence of dissociative symptoms during the traumatic event

Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violence

Symptoms lasting at least one week following any traumatic experience

#13. Differential diagnoses for PTSD include all of the following EXCEPT

MDD

Acute stress disorder

Traumatic brain injuries

Parasomnias

#14. Which of the following is a key diagnostic requirement for Acute Stress Disorder?

Symptoms must last more than one month

Symptoms occur within 3 days to 1 month after a traumatic event

The presence of dissociation is required

The traumatic event must be witnessed rather than experienced directly

#15. Adjustment disorder is classified as a

Mood disorder

Thought disorder

Personality disorder

Trauma- and stressor-related disordrer

#16. Which of the following is a required feature of Prolonged Grief Disorder (PGD)?

Persistent grief symptoms lasting at least 3 months after the death

Intense yearning or longing for the deceased that persists beyond 12 months (6 months for children)

Preoccupation with health and safety following a loss

The death was traumatic

#17. Which of the following is a core diagnostic feature of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

Recurrent episodes of depersonalization without memory disturbance

The presence of two or more distinct personality states accompanied by gaps in recall

Persistent difficulty distinguishing reality from imagination

Dissociative symptoms occurring only during traumatic flashbacks

#18. Which of the following best describes Dissociative Amnesia?

Memory loss caused by a medical condition such as head injury or substance use

Inability to recall important personal information, usually related to trauma, that is not explained by ordinary forgetfulness

Persistent problems forming new memories while older memories remain intact

Memory lapses that occur exclusively during episodes of dissociation in PTSD

#19. Which experience is most characteristic of Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder?

Recurrent inability to recall important personal information

Persistent belief that one’s thoughts are being broadcast to others

Sudden shifts between distinct personality states

Feeling detached from one’s body or surroundings while still knowing the experience is not real

#20. Which of the following is a key feature of Somatic Symptom Disorder?

Physical symptoms that are intentionally produced to gain external incentives

Preoccupation with having a serious illness despite minimal or no symptoms

One or more distressing physical symptoms accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to those symptoms

Sudden loss of motor functioning that is incompatible with neurological findings

#21. Which of the following best characterizes Illness Anxiety Disorder?

Multiple physical symptoms that cause significant distress

Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness despite minimal or no somatic symptoms

Intentional production of symptoms to assume the sick role

Excessive worry about existing medical conditions that have been medically confirmed

#22. Which of the following is most characteristic of Conversion Disorder?

Physical symptoms that are intentionally produced to gain external rewards

Neurological symptoms that are inconsistent with medical or neurological findings

Excessive worry about having a serious illness despite minimal somatic symptoms

Long-standing physical symptoms caused by a diagnosed neurological condition

#23. Which of the following are differential diagnoses for Factitious Disorder?

Malingering

Borderline Personality Disorder

Conversion Disorder

All of the above

#24. Which of the following best describes Pica?

Eating large amounts of food followed by compensatory behaviors

Persistent eating of nonfood, nonnutritive substances for at least one month

Recurrent episodes of overeating unrelated to hunger cues

Avoiding specific foods due to fear of aversive consequences

#25. Which of the following is a key feature of Rumination Disorder?

Persistent avoidance of food due to fear of choking

Recurrent regurgitation of food that is re-chewed, re-swallowed, or spit out

Consumption of nonfood, nonnutritive substances for at least one month

Having uncontrollable ruminating thoughts for most days for at least 2 weeks

#26. Which of the following is characteristic of Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)?

Restriction of food intake due to fear of weight gain or desire to be thin

Recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors

Failure to meet nutritional or energy needs due to avoidance of food based on sensory issues, lack of interest, or fear of aversive consequences

All of the above

#27. Which of the following is a required feature of Anorexia Nervosa?

Recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors

Significant restriction of energy intake leading to low body weight, intense fear of gaining weight, and disturbance in body image

Avoidance of certain foods due to sensory characteristics without concerns about weight

Persistent preoccupation with having a serious medical illness despite minimal symptoms

#28. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Bulimia Nervosa?

Episodes of binge eating without any compensatory behaviors

Restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight

Recurrent binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain

Persistent avoidance of food based on sensory characteristics without concerns about weight

#29. Which of the following is considered moderate severity of Binge-Eating Disorder?

1-3 binges per day

4-7 binges per week

8-13 binges per week

14 or more binges per week

#30. Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of Enuresis?

Repeated voiding of urine into bed or clothes, occurring at least twice per week for three months or causing significant distress or impairment

Involuntary feces passage into inappropriate places for at least one month

Recurrent urination caused by a diagnosed medical condition

Urinary accidents occurring exclusively during periods of extreme anxiety

#31. Which of the following best describes Insomnia Disorder?

Difficulty falling or staying asleep that occurs only during manic episodes

Dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality, with difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, occurring at least 3 nights per week for at least 3 months

Excessive daytime sleepiness with irresistible sleep attacks

Sleep disturbances caused primarily by inadequate sleep opportunity

#32. Which of the following best characterizes Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorders?

Recurrent episodes of sudden, irresistible sleep attacks during the day

Difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep despite adequate opportunity

Nighttime breathing disturbances resulting in repeated awakenings

Misalignment between an individual’s internal biological clock and the required sleep–wake schedule, leading to insomnia or excessive sleepiness

#33. Which of the following is a key feature of Nightmare Disorder?

Recurrent episodes of incomplete awakening with sleepwalking

Repeated, well-remembered dreams that involve threats to survival or well-being and cause significant distress or impairment

Nighttime episodes of screaming and intense fear with little to no dream recall

Sudden loss of muscle tone triggered by strong emotions

#34. Which of the following is characteristic of Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS)?

Sudden episodes of daytime sleep attacks

Urges to move the legs that worsen during periods of rest or inactivity and improve with movement

Recurrent nightmares involving threats to safety

Repeated awakenings due to breathing pauses during sleep

#35. Which of the following is a core feature of Female Orgasmic Disorder?

Persistent avoidance of sexual activity due to fear of pain

Marked delay in, infrequency of, or absence of orgasm, or reduced intensity of orgasmic sensations

Recurrent involuntary muscle contractions of the pelvic floor during attempted penetration

Discomfort and dryness during sexual activity unrelated to arousal

#36. Which of the following is a core feature of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)?

Repetitive violation of the basic rights of others, including aggression and property destruction

Persistent pattern of angry or irritable mood, argumentative or defiant behavior, or vindictiveness

Difficulty sustaining attention and following instructions across multiple settings

Severe, recurrent temper outbursts inconsistent with developmental level

#37. Which of the following best characterizes Intermittent Explosive Disorder (IED)?

Recurrent behavioral outbursts involving aggression toward people, animals, or property that are out of proportion to the provocation

Persistent pattern of angry or defiant behavior toward authority figures

Severe mood swings occurring multiple times each day for at least one year

Aggressive behavior that is always premeditated and aimed at achieving a tangible objective

#38. Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Conduct Disorder?

Persistent refusal to comply with rules without violating others’ rights

Recurrent verbal outbursts that are out of proportion to provocation

A repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms

Mood instability characterized by rapid shifts from anger to sadness

#39. Which of the following is a defining feature of Pyromania?

Fire-setting that occurs due to hallucinations or command voices

Fire-setting motivated by financial gain or revenge

Deliberate and purposeful fire-setting accompanied by tension or arousal before the act and pleasure or relief afterward

Fire-setting that happens only during episodes of substance intoxication

#40. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Alcohol Use Disorder (AUD)?

Recurrent alcohol use only during social events

A pattern of alcohol use leading to significant impairment or distress, as evidenced by symptoms such as loss of control, cravings, or continued use despite problems

Daily consumption of alcohol regardless of consequences

Occasional binge drinking without any negative impact on functioning

#41. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Alcohol Withdrawal?

Euphoria, excessive energy, and pressured speech after stopping alcohol use

Anxiety, tremors, sweating, nausea, and possible seizures developing after heavy, prolonged alcohol use is reduced or stopped

Sudden loss of consciousness immediately after drinking large amounts of alcohol

Persistent craving for alcohol without any physical symptoms

#42. Which of the following best describes Cannabis Use Disorder?

Use of cannabis that causes no functional impairment and occurs only in social settings

Exclusive use of cannabis for medical purposes with a physician’s recommendation

A pattern of cannabis use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress, including symptoms such as cravings, tolerance, and continued use despite problems

All of the above

#43. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of PCP intoxication?

Marked respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils

Euphoria with increased sociability and rapid speech

Severe behavioral changes with nystagmus, hypertension, and reduced pain perception

Bradycardia accompanied by excessive salivation and tearing

#44. Which of the following is most characteristic of Inhalant Intoxication?

Nystagmus, hypertension, and reduced pain perception

Euphoria, slurred speech, dizziness, and poorly coordinated movements after inhaling volatile substances

Pinpoint pupils and severe respiratory depression

Sudden, intense visual hallucinations with marked hyperactivity

Inhalant Intoxication often includes euphoria, dizziness, slurred speech, incoordination, nystagmus, unsteady gait, and depressed reflexes following recent inhalation of volatile hydrocarbons such as glue, paint, or gasoline.

#45. Which of the following is a defining feature of Opioid Use Disorder?

A pattern of opioid use leading to significant impairment or distress, including symptoms such as cravings, tolerance, withdrawal, or continued use despite problems

Occasional opioid use without any functional impairment

Intoxication characterized by hallucinations and violent behavior

Use of opioids strictly for pain management under medical supervision

#46. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of Opioid Withdrawal?

Severe respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils

Euphoria, increased energy, and decreased appetite

Dysphoric mood with symptoms such as nausea, muscle aches, lacrimation, sweating, diarrhea, and yawning

High fever, seizures, and life-threatening cardiovascular instability

Opioid Withdrawal typically includes dysphoria, nausea, vomiting, muscle aches, sweating, dilated pupils, diarrhea, goosebumps, and yawning. Unlike alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal, opioid withdrawal is extremely uncomfortable but not usually life-threatening.

#47. Which of the following best describes Stimulant Use Disorder?

Use of stimulants only during medical treatment for ADHD

Recurrent stimulant use that causes only physical dependence without psychological symptoms

Occasional stimulant use without any negative consequences on functioning

A maladaptive pattern of stimulant use leading to impairment or distress, including symptoms such as cravings, tolerance, and continued use despite problems

Stimulant Use Disorder involves a problematic pattern of cocaine or amphetamine-type stimulant use that results in impairment or distress, such as cravings, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, risky use, and continued use despite harm.

#48. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Gambling Disorder?

Excessive gambling that occurs only during manic episodes

Occasional gambling for entertainment without financial consequences

Persistent and recurrent problematic gambling behavior leading to significant impairment or distress

All of the above

#49. Which of the following best distinguishes Major Neurocognitive Disorder from Mild Neurocognitive Disorder?

Major Neurocognitive Disorder always involves psychotic symptoms, while Mild does not

Major Neurocognitive Disorder involves significant cognitive decline that interferes with independence, while Mild involves modest decline without loss of independence

Mild Neurocognitive Disorder occurs only in older adults, while Major can occur at any age

Mild Neurocognitive Disorder requires memory impairment, while Major does not

#50. Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of a Personality Disorder (General Personality Disorder criteria)?

Symptoms that fluctuate significantly depending on mood state

Enduring patterns of inner experience and behavior that deviate markedly from cultural expectations, are inflexible, and lead to distress or impairment

Recurrent episodes of disorganized thinking lasting at least one week

Difficulty regulating emotions only during stressful life events

#51. Which of the following personality traits is most characteristic of Cluster A Personality Disorders?

Odd, eccentric thinking or behavior

Impulsive and aggressive tendencies that violate others’ rights

Dramatic, emotional, and attention-seeking behavior

Anxious and fearful behavior centered on avoidance and dependency

#52. Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Paranoid Personality Disorder?

Persistent detachment from social relationships and limited emotional expression

A pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior

Instability in relationships, self-image, and affect with marked impulsivity

Pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, interpreting their motives as malevolent

#53. Which of the following is most characteristic of Schizoid Personality Disorder?

A pervasive distrust of others and suspicion of their motives

Odd beliefs, eccentric behavior, and perceptual distortions

Dramatic, attention-seeking behavior and excessive emotionality

Social detachment and a restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings

#54. Which of the following is a key feature of Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

Chronic detachment from social relationships without unusual thinking

Pervasive distrust and suspicion of others’ motives

Social and interpersonal deficits accompanied by cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentric behavior

Rapid shifts in mood and unstable interpersonal relationships

#55. Which of the following traits is most characteristic of Cluster B Personality Disorders?

Odd and eccentric behavior with social detachment

Dramatic, emotional, or erratic behavior

Anxious and fearful behavior involving avoidance or dependency

Restricted emotional expression and indifference to relationships

#56. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Antisocial Personality Disorder?

Pervasive distrust and suspicion of others’ motives

A pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15, with evidence of Conduct Disorder before age 15

Excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behavior

All of the above

#57. Which of the following is most characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder?

Persistent detachment from social relationships and restricted emotional expression

A pattern of instability in relationships, self-image, and affect, with marked impulsivity

Pervasive distrust and suspicion of others’ motives

All of the above

#58. Which of the following traits are most characteristic of Cluster C Personality Disorders?

Dramatic, emotional, or erratic behavior

Odd, eccentric thinking or perceptual distortions

Anxious and fearful behavior patterns

A pervasive pattern of violating the rights of others

#59. Which of the following is required for a Paraphilic Disorder?

The presence of any atypical sexual interest

Sexual interests focused on nonhuman objects, children, or suffering

Atypical sexual interests that cause distress or impairment, or involve harm or risk of harm to others

Engagement in consensual, unconventional sexual behavior between adults

#60. Which of the following is most characteristic of Antidepressant Discontinuation Syndrome?

Rapid onset of flu-like symptoms, insomnia, sensory disturbances, and irritability after abruptly stopping an antidepressant

Severe hypertension and serotonin toxicity following abrupt medication withdrawal

Immediate relapse into major depressive symptoms within 24 hours of stopping medication

Persistent manic symptoms triggered by sudden absence of antidepressant effects

#61. Which of the following best describes Z Codes in the DSM-5-TR?

Mental disorders that require medication but do not meet full diagnostic criteria

Conditions that are not mental disorders but may be the focus of clinical attention or affect diagnosis, treatment, or care

Mild versions of psychiatric disorders that do not cause impairment

Temporary emotional states that resolve without intervention

#62. Which of the following best reflects how culture should be considered when making DSM-5-TR diagnoses?

DSM diagnoses are universal and unaffected by cultural norms or expectations

Cultural factors are relevant only when diagnosing trauma- and stressor-related disorders

Cultural beliefs and expressions of distress must be ignored to avoid diagnostic bias

Cultural context influences symptom expression, meaning, and help-seeking, and should be assessed using the Cultural Formulation Interview

#63. Which of the following best describes the Alternative Model for Personality Disorders?

A categorical system that classifies personality disorders strictly by symptom checklists

A dimensional model that evaluates impairments in personality functioning and pathological personality traits

A diagnostic system used only for children and adolescents with personality concerns

A replacement for all traditional personality disorder diagnoses in the DSM-5-TR

#64. Which of the following best describes “Conditions for Further Study” in the DSM-5-TR?

Fully approved mental disorders that require immediate inclusion in the main diagnostic section

Conditions that have been removed from the DSM but are kept for historical reference

Proposed diagnoses that require additional research before being included as official disorders

Disorders that can only be diagnosed in research settings, not clinical practice

Part 2: Think You Can Ace This DSM-5-TR Quiz? Let’s See.

Results

#1. Which of the following is NOT diagnostic criteria for panic disorder?

#2. True or false: Panic disorder occurs more frequently in women.

#3. To be diagnosed with agoraphobia, a person must have a marked fear or anxiety of which of the following:

#4. Differential diagnoses for GAD include which of the following:

#5. The main difference between other specified anxiety disorder and unspecified anxiety disorder is:

#6. OCD includes all of the following disorders EXCEPT:

#7. Associated features with body dysmorphic disorder include:

#8. In those with hoarding disorder, symptoms typically begin

#9. Which of the following is a DSM-5-TR diagnostic feature of Hair-Pulling Disorder?

#10. Approximately what percentage of adults in the United States identify as having a skin-picking disorder (current, not lifetime)?

#11. Which of the following best describes a core feature of Reactive Attachment Disorder?

#12. Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

#13. Differential diagnoses for PTSD include all of the following EXCEPT

#14. Which of the following is a key diagnostic requirement for Acute Stress Disorder?

#15. Adjustment disorder is classified as a

#16. Which of the following is a required feature of Prolonged Grief Disorder (PGD)?

#17. Which of the following is a core diagnostic feature of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

#18. Which of the following best describes Dissociative Amnesia?

#19. Which experience is most characteristic of Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder?

#20. Which of the following is a key feature of Somatic Symptom Disorder?

#21. Which of the following best characterizes Illness Anxiety Disorder?

#22. Which of the following is most characteristic of Conversion Disorder?

#23. Which of the following are differential diagnoses for Factitious Disorder?

#24. Which of the following best describes Pica?

#25. Which of the following is a key feature of Rumination Disorder?

#26. Which of the following is characteristic of Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID)?

#27. Which of the following is a required feature of Anorexia Nervosa?

#28. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Bulimia Nervosa?

#29. Which of the following is considered moderate severity of Binge-Eating Disorder?

#30. Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of Enuresis?

#31. Which of the following best describes Insomnia Disorder?

#32. Which of the following best characterizes Circadian Rhythm Sleep-Wake Disorders?

#33. Which of the following is a key feature of Nightmare Disorder?

#34. Which of the following is characteristic of Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS)?

#35. Which of the following is a core feature of Female Orgasmic Disorder?

#36. Which of the following is a core feature of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)?

#37. Which of the following best characterizes Intermittent Explosive Disorder (IED)?

#38. Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Conduct Disorder?

#39. Which of the following is a defining feature of Pyromania?

#40. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Alcohol Use Disorder (AUD)?

#41. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Alcohol Withdrawal?

#42. Which of the following best describes Cannabis Use Disorder?

#43. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of PCP intoxication?

#44. Which of the following is most characteristic of Inhalant Intoxication?

#45. Which of the following is a defining feature of Opioid Use Disorder?

#46. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of Opioid Withdrawal?

#47. Which of the following best describes Stimulant Use Disorder?

#48. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Gambling Disorder?

#49. Which of the following best distinguishes Major Neurocognitive Disorder from Mild Neurocognitive Disorder?

#50. Which of the following is required for a diagnosis of a Personality Disorder (General Personality Disorder criteria)?

#51. Which of the following personality traits is most characteristic of Cluster A Personality Disorders?

#52. Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Paranoid Personality Disorder?

#53. Which of the following is most characteristic of Schizoid Personality Disorder?

#54. Which of the following is a key feature of Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

#55. Which of the following traits is most characteristic of Cluster B Personality Disorders?

#56. Which of the following is a key diagnostic feature of Antisocial Personality Disorder?

#57. Which of the following is most characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder?

#58. Which of the following traits are most characteristic of Cluster C Personality Disorders?

#59. Which of the following is required for a Paraphilic Disorder?

#60. Which of the following is most characteristic of Antidepressant Discontinuation Syndrome?

#61. Which of the following best describes Z Codes in the DSM-5-TR?

#62. Which of the following best reflects how culture should be considered when making DSM-5-TR diagnoses?

#63. Which of the following best describes the Alternative Model for Personality Disorders?

#64. Which of the following best describes “Conditions for Further Study” in the DSM-5-TR?

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